When the coefficients of a linear equation change with x, assume a power series (or a power series times a power of x) and the equation turns into a recurrence for the coefficients. At an ordinary point the series converges as far as the coefficients do. At a regular singular point the indicial equation says which power to start with. Legendre's equation gives orthogonal polynomials, Bessel's gives the function J0, and Airy's equation is the model of a turning point.
Taught in 375/376Apostol, not taughtBeyond the courseApostol 6.16 to 6.24Technau, MATH 376 lecture of April 22 (Examples 8.12 and 8.14)MATH 376 worksheets 26 #5, #6 and 28 #7NIST Digital Library of Mathematical Functions, chapters 9, 10 and 18
The recipe of 7.2 needs constant coefficients: guess ert and read the exponent off a polynomial. Change the coefficients and the recipe fails. The equation y′′=xy looks harmless, but none of erx, sin, cos or any other function you know solves it. The substitute is a more flexible guess, an infinite polynomial ∑anxn, which turns the equation into a rule for computing the numbers an one after another. This chapter asks when that works, how far the series reaches, and what to do at a point where the coefficients themselves blow up. The answers produce three families of functions that physics uses constantly: Legendre polynomials, Bessel functions and the Airy function.
Before you start
You need power series and their radius of convergence from 1.6, the inner product and orthogonality from 2.9 and 3.1, and the Wronskian from 7.3. Three quick checks:
Quick checkA power series ∑anxn has an+1/an→21. What is its radius of convergence?
By the ratio formula the radius is lim∣an/an+1∣=2. Check with an=2−n: the series is geometric with ratio x/2, which converges for ∣x∣<2.Review: the ratio formula for the radius
Quick checkAfter putting y=∑n≥0anxn into an equation, the term y′′=∑n≥2n(n−1)anxn−2 is rewritten as a sum of multiples of xk. What is the coefficient of xk?
Put n−2=k, that is n=k+2. Then n(n−1)=(k+2)(k+1) and an=ak+2. The sum now starts at k=0. This index shift is the step where most errors happen.Review: the power series example in 7.4
Quick checkWith the inner product ⟨f,g⟩=∫−11f(x)g(x)dx, are f(x)=x and g(x)=x2−31 orthogonal?
f(x)g(x)=x3−3x is odd, so the area to the left of 0 cancels the area to the right. The value of ∫g does not matter: orthogonality is about the integral of the product.Review: orthogonal vectors
The picture
Below, each equation is solved by a power series. The black dashed curve is the true solution, computed numerically (or from a closed form). The blue curve is the partial sum of the series up to degree N. Raise N and watch the blue curve lock onto the black one from the middle outwards. For the arctangent equation and for the Legendre equation with ν=1.5 the red lines mark the radius of convergence: the blue curve never crosses them successfully, however large N is. For Legendre with ν=2 the series stops by itself.
Three things to notice. For the Airy and Bessel equations the series converges at every x, but the number of terms needed grows with ∣x∣. For the arctangent equation the radius is exactly 1, although nothing is wrong with the equation at x=1. And for Legendre with ν=2, a polynomial appears. Each of these is explained below.
Where this came from· Spheroids, planets and a rainbow
Series solutions come from astronomy. Legendre was computing the gravitational pull of a spheroid such as the flattened Earth, and the polynomials that carry his name appear in a memoir on that problem which he read to the Paris Académie in the early 1780s (it was printed in 1785). The closed formula for them was found by Olinde Rodrigues around 1816. Bessel studied planetary perturbations in a memoir of 1824 and worked out the general properties of the functions that now carry his name. Special cases were older: Daniel Bernoulli met them in a hanging chain in the 1730s and Euler in a vibrating membrane in 1764. Frobenius gave the general method for equations with a singular point in 1873, in Crelle’s Journal. Airy introduced his function in 1838, in a paper on the light near a caustic, to explain the faint bands inside a rainbow.
The idea, in words
Why· Replace the guess e^(rx) by an infinite polynomial
For constant coefficients the derivative of erx is again a multiple of erx, so substituting turns the equation into a polynomial equation for r. When a coefficient depends on x, the factor x spoils this. A power series y=∑anxn is flexible enough to absorb it: differentiating lowers the power of x by one, and multiplying by x raises it by one, so after substitution every power xk gets a coefficient made of a few of the an. Setting each coefficient to zero gives a recurrence, a rule for ak+2 in terms of earlier ones. Two numbers (a0 and a1) stay free, and they are the starting values y(0) and y′(0) of 7.1.
Two questions remain. First, does the series converge, and where? The answer (below) is that it converges at least as far as the coefficients of the equation do. Second, what if the coefficients are infinite at the point we expand about, as in Bessel’s equation at x=0? Then close to that point the equation looks like an Euler equationx2y′′+p0xy′+q0y=0, whose solutions are the powers xs (7.2, problem on t2y′′+ty′−y=0). The Frobenius method multiplies the series by one such power xs, and the number s comes from a quadratic equation, the indicial equation.
Definitions and theorems
Matching coefficients
Every power series method ends with a step like “so each coefficient must be zero”. That step needs a reason.
Theorem TMATH 376 lecture of April 22 (Example 8.12); standard
Matching coefficients
Suppose f(x)=∑n≥0cn(x−x0)n converges for ∣x−x0∣<r and f(x)=0 on an interval around x0. Then cn=0 for all n. Equivalently: two power series that agree on an interval have the same coefficients.
In one lineIf a power series ∑cn(x−x0)n equals 0 at every point of an interval around x0, then every coefficient cn is 0.
Why it is trueA power series can be differentiated term by term, and the k-th derivative at the centre is k!ck. A function that is zero on an interval has all derivatives zero.
ProofMATH 376 lecture of April 22; 1.6
The idea: Differentiate k times at the centre to read off c_k, then use that f is the zero function.
f(k)(x)=∑n≥kn(n−1)⋯(n−k+1)cn(x−x0)n−k.
A power series may be differentiated term by term inside its radius of convergence (1.6); each differentiation lowers every power by one.
So f(k)(x0)=k!ck.
At x=x0 every term with n>k contains the factor (x−x0)n−k=0, and only n=k survives.
Hence k!ck=0, and ck=0 for every k.
f is the zero function on an interval, so all its derivatives there are 0. ■
The April 22 notes justify this step loosely (they cite the fundamental theorem of algebra, which is about roots of polynomials). The reason is the theorem above, which is about derivatives of series.
Analytic functions and ordinary points
Definition A
Analytic function
A function f is analytic on the interval (x0−r,x0+r) if there are numbers a0,a1,… with f(x)=∑n≥0an(x−x0)n for every x in the interval. Apostol (6.17) uses this definition. Example: 1−x21=∑n≥0x2n is analytic on (−1,1) (geometric series, 1.6) and nowhere else around 0, because the function is infinite at ±1.
In one lineA function f is analytic on (x0−r,x0+r) if it equals a power series ∑an(x−x0)n at every point of that interval.
Why it existsIt is the class of functions that a power series method can handle, and it contains every polynomial, ex, sin, cos, and every quotient of those where the denominator is not zero.
Consider a second-order equation in the form with leading coefficient 1:
y′′+p(x)y′+q(x)y=0.(∗)
(If the equation is given as A(x)y′′+B(x)y′+C(x)y=0, divide by A where A(x)=0: p=B/A and q=C/A.)
Definition A
Ordinary point
The point x0 is an ordinary point of (∗) if p and q are both analytic on some interval (x0−r,x0+r).
In one lineA point x0 is an ordinary point of y′′+py′+qy=0 if both p and q are analytic on an interval around x0.
Why it existsAt an ordinary point the equation is as well behaved as a constant-coefficient one, and a power series centred there solves it.
Definition A
Singular point
A point x0 that is not an ordinary point of (∗) is a singular point. Example: for (1−x2)y′′−2xy′+ν(ν+1)y=0 we get p=1−x2−2x and q=1−x2ν(ν+1), which are infinite at x=±1, so ±1 are singular points, and every other point is ordinary.
In one lineA point that is not an ordinary point of y′′+py′+qy=0: p or q fails to be analytic there, usually because it is infinite.
Why it existsSingular points are where the equation can change character, and where the interesting special functions live.
The main theorem at an ordinary point
Theorem AApostol 6.17 (Theorem 6.13)
Series solutions at an ordinary point
Let p(x)=∑k≥0bk(x−x0)k and q(x)=∑k≥0ck(x−x0)k on (x0−r,x0+r). Then the equation y′′+py′+qy=0 has two linearly independent solutions u1,u2, each a power series ∑an(x−x0)n that converges on the whole interval. They are given by a0=1,a1=0 for u1 and a0=0,a1=1 for u2, and for all n≥0
In one lineIf p and q are analytic on (x0−r,x0+r), then y′′+py′+qy=0 has two independent solutions that are power series in x−x0 converging on the whole interval. The coefficients come from a recurrence, with a0 and a1 free.
Why it is trueSubstituting a series gives a recurrence for the coefficients. The coefficients of p and q are bounded by a geometric sequence, and that makes the solution's coefficients bounded by a geometric sequence too, so the series converges as far as p and q do.
ProofApostol 6.17; the induction is arranged differently from Apostol's, to avoid the ratio test
The idea: Define the coefficients by the recurrence (R). Show that |a_n| is at most K times rho^(-n) for every rho below r, by induction, using that b_k and c_k are bounded by M times s^(-k). Then the series converges on the interval, and term-by-term differentiation shows it solves the equation.
The coefficient of (x−x0)n in y′′+py′+qy is (n+2)(n+1)an+2+∑k=0n[(k+1)ak+1bn−k+akcn−k]. By matching coefficients, the equation holds exactly when this is 0 for every n, which is (R).
Put y=∑an(x−x0)n in the equation and use term-by-term differentiation: y′=∑(n+1)an+1(x−x0)n and y′′=∑(n+2)(n+1)an+2(x−x0)n. The products py′ and qy are products of absolutely convergent series (Cauchy product, 1.6), so their coefficient of (x−x0)n is ∑k=0n(k+1)ak+1bn−k, respectively ∑k=0nakcn−k.
Choose a0,a1 and define a2,a3,… by (R).
(R) gives an+2 from a0,…,an+1, so after the free choice of a0 and a1 every coefficient is determined. This is a definition of the numbers an, and it remains to show the series converges.
There is a number M with ∣bk∣≤Ms−k and ∣ck∣≤Ms−k for all k.
Pick 0<ρ<s<r. The series ∑bksk and ∑cksk converge (inside the radius), so their terms tend to 0 and are bounded.
Choose N0 so that (1−θ)(n+2)(n+1)Mρ(n+1+ρ)≤1 for all n≥N0. Put K=maxj≤N0+1∣aj∣ρj.
Let θ=ρ/s<1. The expression (1−θ)(n+2)(n+1)Mρ(n+1+ρ) tends to 0 as n→∞ (the numerator grows like n, the denominator like n2), so it is at most 1 from some n on.
Strong induction on n. Suppose ∣aj∣≤Kρ−j for all j≤n+1, where n≥N0 (true for j≤N0+1 by the choice of K). Take absolute values in (R), use ∣bn−k∣,∣cn−k∣≤Msk−n and the hypothesis. Since sk−n=ρk−nθn−k, the term (k+1)ρ−k−1sk−n equals (k+1)ρ−n−1θn−k and the term ρ−ksk−n equals ρ−nθn−k.This is the step where the geometric decay of the coefficients of p and q is turned into geometric decay of the an.
So ∣an+2∣ρn+2≤K(1−θ)(n+2)(n+1)Mρ(n+1+ρ)≤K, which completes the induction: ∣an∣≤Kρ−n for all n.
Geometric series: ∑k=0nθn−k≤1−θ1 and ∑k=0n(k+1)θn−k≤1−θn+1. Multiply by ρn+2 and divide by (n+2)(n+1), then use the choice of N0.
So ∑an(x−x0)n converges absolutely for ∣x−x0∣<r: its radius of convergence is at least r.
Comparison with the geometric series ∑K(∣x−x0∣/ρ)n, which converges for ∣x−x0∣<ρ. Since ρ<r was arbitrary, this covers the whole interval.
The sum y satisfies the equation on (x0−r,x0+r).
Inside the radius the series can be differentiated term by term, and the Cauchy products are legitimate. The computation of the first step then shows that every coefficient of y′′+py′+qy is zero by (R), so the sum is zero.
W(u1,u2)(x0)=1⋅1−0⋅0=1=0, so u1,u2 are independent.
The Wronskian of 7.3 at x0: u1(x0)=1, u1′(x0)=a1=0, u2(x0)=0, u2′(x0)=1. A non-zero Wronskian at one point proves independence. ■
Proof workshopRebuild the convergence proof for series at an ordinary pointApostol 6.17
Tap the lines in the order a proof would write them. Each line can only use what is already above it.
Matching coefficients: two power series are equal only if all their coefficients agree.
The terms of the convergent series ∑bksk and ∑cksk tend to zero, so they are bounded.
First say what the recurrence is: the bound on bk and ck is used inside it.
The expression tends to zero, so it is at most one for large n. K makes the start of the induction true.
The constants M and θ must exist before you can choose N0 in terms of them.
Take absolute values in (R), insert the bounds, and sum the geometric series in θ.
The induction uses both K and N0, so they come first.
Comparison with a geometric series; ρ was an arbitrary number below r.
The convergence comes after the bound on an has been proved.
Term-by-term differentiation together with (R); then a non-zero Wronskian proves independence.
You must know the series converges before you may differentiate it term by term.
Beyond the course: for understanding· B: the radius is set by the complex plane
The theorem says “at least r”. It can be larger, and it cannot always be larger than the nearest singularity in the complex plane. The equation (1+x2)y′′+2xy′=0 has no singular point on the real line, yet its solution arctanx has radius 1 around 0: the coefficient 1+x22x is infinite at x=±i, which are at distance 1 from the origin. This is the first picture’s second equation. Over the complex numbers (MATH 521) the guarantee is sharp: the radius of convergence is the distance to the nearest singular point of the coefficients.
Quick checkThe equation (1+x2)y′′+2xy′=0 is expanded about x0=0. What does the theorem guarantee?
Dividing by 1+x2 gives p=1+x22x and q=0. The series for 1+x21=∑(−1)nx2n has radius 1, so r=1. The point 0 is ordinary. The guarantee cannot be improved: the solution arctanx really has radius 1.
Example: the Airy equation
Worked example MATH 376 worksheet 26 #5 (the method); Apostol 6.17
Find two independent power series solutions of y'' = xy (Airy's equation) and say where they converge.
Solution. Use the stepper to watch the recurrence appear.
Answer.y=a0u1+a1u2 with u1,u2 as above, converging for all real x. The first picture shows u1. For x>0 the solution curves away from the axis (because y′′=xy has the sign of y), and for x<0 it oscillates (because y′′=xy has the opposite sign to y). This is the whole character of the Airy function.
Your answerFor y′′=xy with y(0)=1, y′(0)=0 the recurrence gives a3=61. What is a6? (A fraction.)
Use an+3=an/((n+3)(n+2)) with n=3.
a6=6⋅5a3=6⋅301=1801.
Quick checkWithout solving y′′=xy: for large positive x, what do the solutions do?
If y>0 then y′′=xy>0 and the graph is convex, curving up and away. If y<0 it curves down. For large x the factor x acts like ω2 in y′′=ω2y, which has exponential solutions. For negative x the sign flips and the solutions oscillate.
The Legendre equation
Definition A
Legendre polynomial
Legendre’s equation is
(1−x2)y′′−2xy′+ν(ν+1)y=0,
where ν (Greek nu) is a constant. The Legendre polynomial of degree n (n=0,1,2,…) is defined by Rodrigues’ formula
Pn(x)=2nn!1dxndn(x2−1)n.
The first ones are P0=1, P1=x, P2=23x2−1, P3=25x3−3x, P4=835x4−30x2+3.
In one lineThe polynomial Pn(x)=2nn!1dxndn(x2−1)n of degree n (Rodrigues' formula). It solves Legendre's equation with ν=n and has Pn(1)=1.
Why it existsLegendre's equation (1−x2)y′′−2xy′+ν(ν+1)y=0 describes gravity and electric fields around a sphere. Its polynomial solutions are the angular patterns, and they are mutually orthogonal.
We find the series first, then show the polynomials are among its solutions.
Theorem AApostol 6.18 (formula 6.36)
Recurrence for Legendre's equation
For Legendre’s equation, with y=∑anxn, the coefficients satisfy an+2=(n+1)(n+2)(n−ν)(n+ν+1)an for n≥0, and a0,a1 are free. The even chain (a0,a2,a4,…) and the odd chain (a1,a3,…) never mix. Both series converge for ∣x∣<1. If ν=m is a non-negative integer, the chain that contains am stops: am+2=am+4=⋯=0, and it is a polynomial of degree m.
In one lineSeries solutions y=∑anxn of Legendre's equation satisfy an+2=(n+1)(n+2)(n−ν)(n+ν+1)an. They converge for ∣x∣<1, and they stop (are polynomials) when ν is an integer of the right parity.
Why it is trueThe two singular points ±1 limit the radius to 1. The factor (n−ν) is zero when n=ν, and then the chain of coefficients ends.
ProofApostol 6.18
The idea: Compute each of the three terms as a sum of multiples of x^n, collect, and read off the recurrence. The radius comes from the theorem of this chapter, since 1/(1-x^2) is a geometric series.
−2xy′=∑−2nanxn, y′′=∑(n+2)(n+1)an+2xn and −x2y′′=∑−n(n−1)anxn.
Term-by-term differentiation: y′=∑nanxn−1, y′′=∑n(n−1)anxn−2. Multiplying by x or x2 shifts the power, and the shift for y′′ is the one from the quiz.
(n+2)(n+1)an+2−n(n−1)an−2nan+ν(ν+1)an=0.
Matching coefficients: the coefficient of each xn must be 0.
Algebra: n(n−1)+2n=n(n+1), and n(n+1)−ν(ν+1)=(n−ν)(n+ν+1) (expand the right side).
an+2=(n+1)(n+2)(n−ν)(n+ν+1)an.
Divide by (n+1)(n+2).
The radius is at least 1, and the chain stops when n=ν=m.
The equation in the form (∗) has p=1−x2−2x and q=1−x2ν(ν+1), and 1−x21=∑x2n is analytic on (−1,1). Series solutions converge there by the main theorem. If ν=m then the factor n−ν is 0 at n=m, so am+2=0 and every later coefficient of the same chain is 0. ■
Worked example Apostol 6.18 (formulas 6.38 to 6.40)
Legendre's equation for ν = 2 and for ν = 1/2: find the first coefficients of the even solution.
Solution.
Write the recurrence for the even chain.an+2=(n+1)(n+2)(n−ν)(n+ν+1)an for n=0,2,4,… with a0=1. The odd coefficients belong to a different chain and are not needed for the even solution.
Take ν=2.a2=1⋅2(0−2)(0+3)a0=−3, and a4=3⋅4(2−2)(2+3)a2=0. The factor n−ν is 0 at n=2, so the chain ends.
Read off the solution.u1=1−3x2. Check: y′′=−6, y′=−6x, so (1−x2)(−6)−2x(−6x)+6(1−3x2)=−6+6x2+12x2+6−18x2=0. Substituting the answer into the equation is the check.
Normalise.P2(1)=1 forces the multiple −21(1−3x2)=23x2−1. Pn is defined to equal 1 at x=1, and every multiple of a solution is a solution.
Take ν=21.a2=2(0−21)(0+23)a0=−83, a4=12(2−21)(2+23)a2=125.25⋅(−83)=−12821. Now n−ν is never 0 for n even, so no coefficient is zero and the series does not stop.
Answer. For ν=2: 1−3x2=−2P2. For ν=21: 1−83x2−12821x4−⋯, an infinite series with radius 1.
Quick checkFor which ν is the EVEN series solution of Legendre's equation (the one starting a0=1, a1=0) a polynomial?
The even chain contains a0,a2,a4,… and it stops only when n=ν for some even n. For ν=1 the factor (n−1) is never 0 for even n, so the even series for ν=1 goes on forever (its sum is not a polynomial). In that case the ODD chain, containing a1, stops at a1 itself: u2=x=P1.
Theorem AApostol 6.19 and 6.20; the proof by Leibniz's rule is the standard one
Legendre polynomials solve Legendre's equation
For every integer n≥0 the Rodrigues polynomial Pn=2nn!1dxndn(x2−1)n has degree n, satisfies Legendre’s equation with ν=n, and has Pn(1)=1. It is the only polynomial solution with these properties: the other series solution for ν=n does not stop.
In one linePn has degree n and satisfies (1−x2)Pn′′−2xPn′+n(n+1)Pn=0 and Pn(1)=1.
Why it is trueDifferentiating the identity (x2−1)w′=2nxw for w=(x2−1)n exactly n+1 times gives Legendre's equation for w(n).
Proofstandard
The idea: Write w for (x^2 - 1)^n. It satisfies a first-order identity. Differentiate that identity n + 1 times with Leibniz's product rule and recognise Legendre's equation for the n-th derivative of w.
Let w=(x2−1)n. Then (x2−1)w′=2nxw.
Product and chain rule: w′=n(x2−1)n−1⋅2x. Multiply by x2−1.
Leibniz's rule: (fg)(m)=∑j(jm)f(j)g(m−j). For f=x2−1 only f,f′=2x,f′′=2 are non-zero, so only three terms occur. For f=x only two terms occur.
(x2−1)w(n+2)+2xw(n+1)−n(n+1)w(n)=0.
Collect the terms: 2(n+1)x−2nx=2x, and n(n+1)−2n(n+1)=−n(n+1).
So y=w(n) satisfies (1−x2)y′′−2xy′+n(n+1)y=0.
Pn is a constant multiple of y=w(n). Multiply the equation by −1.
The degree of w(n) is n.
w has degree 2n, and each derivative lowers the degree by one.
At x=1: w(n)(1)=n!(1+1)n=2nn!, so Pn(1)=1.
Write w=(x−1)n(x+1)n and apply Leibniz's rule to the n-th derivative. Every term that differentiates (x−1)n fewer than n times still contains a factor (x−1) and vanishes at x=1. The one remaining term has all n derivatives on (x−1)n.This is why the factor 2nn!1 is in the definition: it makes the value at 1 equal to 1.
Pn is the unique polynomial solution with Pn(1)=1.
The solution space is spanned by the even and the odd series. For ν=n one of them is a polynomial and the other is not, because for the other parity no factor (m−ν) ever vanishes. So up to a multiple there is one polynomial solution, and Pn(1)=1 fixes the multiple. ■
Worked example Apostol 6.19
Compute P_3 by Rodrigues' formula and check that it solves Legendre's equation with ν = 3.
Solution.
Expand (x2−1)3.x6−3x4+3x2−1. The binomial theorem with a=x2, b=−1.
Differentiate three times. First 6x5−12x3+6x, then 30x4−36x2+6, then 120x3−72x. Each step lowers every power by one and multiplies by it.
Divide by 233!=48.P3=48120x3−72x=25x3−3x. This is Rodrigues’ formula.
Check the value at 1.P3(1)=25−3=1. The normalisation.
Check the equation.P3′=215x2−3, P3′′=15x. Then (1−x2)(15x)−2x⋅215x2−3+12⋅25x3−3x=15x−15x3−15x3+3x+30x3−18x=0. ν(ν+1)=12 for ν=3.
Answer.P3(x)=25x3−3x.
Your answerUsing P4(x)=835x4−30x2+3, what is P4(21)? (A fraction.)
Compute 35⋅161 and 30⋅41 first.
35/16−30/4+3=2.1875−7.5+3=−2.3125=−1637, and dividing by 8 gives −12837≈−0.289.
Orthogonality
Now the property that makes Legendre polynomials useful. Use the inner product ⟨f,g⟩=∫−11f(x)g(x)dx of 2.9. Legendre’s equation can be written ((1−x2)y′)′=−ν(ν+1)y, which says that y is an eigenvector of the operator T(y)=((1−x2)y′)′ with eigenvalue −ν(ν+1). That operator is symmetric in the sense of 3.1, and eigenvectors for different eigenvalues of a symmetric operator are orthogonal (3.1). The proof below is that argument written for this operator.
Theorem AApostol 6.19 and 6.20
Orthogonality of the Legendre polynomials
For non-negative integers m=n: ∫−11PmPndx=0. For every n: ∫−11Pn2dx=2n+12.
In one line∫−11Pm(x)Pn(x)dx=0 for m=n, and ∫−11Pn(x)2dx=2n+12.
Why it is trueEach Pn is an eigenvector of the symmetric operator y↦((1−x2)y′)′ with eigenvalue −n(n+1). The eigenvalues for different n are different, and the boundary terms of integration by parts vanish because 1−x2=0 at ±1.
ProofApostol 6.19 and 6.20
The idea: Write Legendre's equation for P_m and P_n in the form (p y')' = -lambda y, multiply by the other polynomial, subtract and integrate. The left side integrates to boundary terms that vanish. For the norm, integrate Rodrigues' formula by parts n times.
((1−x2)Pn′)′=−n(n+1)Pn and ((1−x2)Pm′)′=−m(m+1)Pm.
Legendre's equation is ((1−x2)y′)′=−ν(ν+1)y, because ((1−x2)y′)′=(1−x2)y′′−2xy′. Use it for Pm with ν=m and for Pn with ν=n.
Multiply the first equation by Pm, the second by Pn, and subtract. The right sides give [m(m+1)−n(n+1)]PmPn.
The left side equals dxd[(1−x2)(PmPn′−PnPm′)].
The left side is the derivative of (1−x2)(PmPn′−PnPm′): expand the derivative, the terms Pm′(1−x2)Pn′ cancel in pairs.This is the picture of a symmetric operator: moving the derivative from one function to the other costs only a boundary term.
So [m(m+1)−n(n+1)]∫−11PmPndx=[(1−x2)(⋯)]−11=0.
Integrate from −1 to 1. The bracket contains the factor 1−x2, which is 0 at both ends, and the polynomials are finite there.
For m=n: ∫−11PmPndx=0.
m(m+1)=n(n+1) means (m−n)(m+n+1)=0, and m+n+1>0. So for m=n the bracket is non-zero and can be divided out.
For the norm write Pn=2nn!1w(n) with w=(x2−1)n and integrate by parts n times, moving one derivative at a time from one factor to the other. Each boundary term contains some w(k) with k<n at ±1, and these vanish because w has a zero of order n at ±1.
=(2nn!)2(2n)!∫−11(1−x2)ndx.
w is a polynomial of degree 2n with leading coefficient 1, so w(2n)=(2n)!. Also (−1)nw=(1−x2)n.
(2n+1)In=2nIn−1, so In=(2n+1)!22n+1(n!)2.
Let In=∫−11(1−x2)ndx. Integrate by parts with u=(1−x2)n, dv=dx: the boundary term vanishes and In=2n∫x2(1−x2)n−1dx=2n(In−1−In), because x2=1−(1−x2). Solve for In and start from I0=2.
So ∫−11Pn2dx=2n+12.
Multiply the two constants: (2nn!)2(2n)!⋅(2n+1)!22n+1(n!)2=(2n+1)!2(2n)!=2n+12. ■
In the picture above: for m=1, n=2 the product of an odd and an even function is odd, and it cancels by symmetry. For m=1, n=3 or m=2, n=4 the product is even, so nothing cancels by symmetry: the areas above and below the axis are equal for a reason that comes from the argument above.
Proof workshopRebuild: Legendre polynomials of different degree are orthogonalApostol 6.19
Each line of the proof is shown in order. Choose the reason that justifies it, then press Check.
((1−x2)Pn′)′=−n(n+1)Pn and ((1−x2)Pm′)′=−m(m+1)Pm.
The left side equals dxd[(1−x2)(PmPn′−PnPm′)].
Integrating from −1 to 1, the left side gives 0.
So [m(m+1)−n(n+1)]∫−11PmPndx=0, and the bracket is non-zero when m=n.
Quick checkWhich of these integrals is NOT zero?
The first two are integrals of two different Legendre polynomials, zero by orthogonality. The third is the square of a function, which cannot cancel: it equals 2⋅3+12=72.
Your answerWhat is ∫−11P3(x)2dx? (A fraction.)
Use 2n+12.
The norm formula 2n+12 with n=3. A direct check: P32=425x6−30x4+9x2 and ∫−11 gives 41(750−12+6)=41⋅78=72.
Corollary AApostol 6.20 (properties list)
Expansion in Legendre polynomials
(a) If q is a polynomial of degree less than n then ∫−11Pnqdx=0. (b) If f is a polynomial of degree at most N, then f=∑k=0NckPk with ck=22k+1∫−11f(x)Pk(x)dx.
In one linePn is orthogonal to every polynomial of degree less than n. A polynomial f of degree at most N equals ∑k=0NckPk with ck=22k+1∫−11fPkdx.
Why it is trueP0,…,PN have degrees 0,…,N, so they are a basis of the polynomials of degree at most N. Taking the inner product of f=∑cjPj with Pk kills every term but one.
ProofApostol 6.20
The idea: Change basis from powers of x to Legendre polynomials, then use orthogonality.
A polynomial q of degree below n is a combination q=∑k<ndkPk.
Pk has degree exactly k, so P0,…,Pn−1 are n independent polynomials in the n-dimensional space of polynomials of degree below n, hence a basis (2.2).
So ∫Pnq=∑k<ndk∫PnPk=0. This is (a).
Linearity of the integral and orthogonality of Pn to Pk for k<n.
∫fPk=ck⋅2k+12, so ck=22k+1∫fPk. ■
The same basis argument for degree at most N gives f=∑j≤NcjPj for some numbers cj. Multiply by Pk and integrate: orthogonality leaves only j=k, and the norm formula gives ∫Pk2=2k+12.
This also says what the Legendre polynomials are in the language of 2.9. Run the Gram–Schmidt process on 1,x,x2,… with the inner product ∫−11fgdx. The n-th output is a polynomial of degree n orthogonal to all lower degrees, and by part (a) so is Pn. Such a polynomial is unique up to a constant multiple, so Gram–Schmidt produces Pn up to a scale. (If you never rescale, Gram–Schmidt on 1,x,x2,… gives the version with leading coefficient 1, while Rodrigues’ formula gives the version with value 1 at x=1.)
Worked example Apostol 6.20; new numbers
Expand x² in Legendre polynomials, and check the answer at x = 1.
Solution.
Choose the range of k.x2 has degree 2, so ck=0 for k>2. By part (a): ∫x2Pk=0 when degx2<k.
Compute c0.c0=21∫−11x2dx=21⋅32=31. P0=1 and the formula with k=0.
Compute c1.x2P1=x3 is odd, so c1=0. An odd function integrates to 0 over [−1,1].
Compute c2.c2=25∫−11x2⋅23x2−1dx=45(3⋅52−32)=45⋅158=32. ∫x4=52 and ∫x2=32 over [−1,1].
Assemble and check.x2=31P0+32P2=31+33x2−1. At x=1 the right side is 31+32=1. Pn(1)=1 for every n, so the coefficients must add up to f(1).
Answer.x2=31P0(x)+32P2(x).
Beyond the course: for understanding· B: why physics only uses integer ν
For ν not an integer, neither the even nor the odd series stops. The ratio of consecutive coefficients in a chain is anan+2=1−n2+O(n−2), so the coefficients behave like n1, as in the harmonic series, and ∑an diverges at x=±1. In fact the solutions are unbounded there (like ln(1−x)). When Legendre’s equation comes from a problem on a sphere, x=cosθ and the points x=±1 are the north and south poles, where the answer must be finite. That forces ν=0,1,2,…, and the allowed angular patterns are exactly the Legendre polynomials. A sketch of the divergence is problem S1 below.
Regular singular points and the Frobenius method
Bessel’s equation x2y′′+xy′+(x2−ν2)y=0 has p(x)=x1 and q(x)=1−x2ν2, which are infinite at x=0. So 0 is a singular point, and the theorem of this chapter says nothing there. Yet the infinity is mild: xp(x) and x2q(x) are fine. That is the pattern to isolate.
Definition A
Regular singular point
A singular point x0 of (∗) is regular if (x−x0)p(x) and (x−x0)2q(x) are both analytic around x0. Equivalently, the equation can be written
(x−x0)2y′′+(x−x0)P(x)y′+Q(x)y=0,P,Q analytic around x0,
with P=(x−x0)p and Q=(x−x0)2q. A singular point that is not regular is irregular. From now on x0=0 (shift the variable otherwise), and P=∑pnxn, Q=∑qnxn.
In one lineA singular point x0 of y′′+py′+qy=0 where (x−x0)p(x) and (x−x0)2q(x) are analytic. Any other singular point is irregular.
Why it existsIt marks the singular points where the equation is close to an Euler equation, and so a power xs times a series can still solve it.
The simplest equation of this type has P≡p0 and Q≡q0 constant. It is the Euler equationx2y′′+p0xy′+q0y=0, and the guess y=xs gives xs[s(s−1)+p0s+q0]=0. This is the origin of the next definition.
Definition A
Indicial equation
The indicial equation of the regular singular point 0 is F(s)=s(s−1)+p0s+q0=0, that is s2+(p0−1)s+q0=0. Its roots α1,α2 (with α1≥α2 if real) are the indicial roots. Note that α1+α2=1−p0.
In one lineFor x2y′′+xP(x)y′+Q(x)y=0 with P(0)=p0 and Q(0)=q0: the quadratic F(s)=s(s−1)+p0s+q0=0. Its roots are the possible starting exponents s of a Frobenius series.
Why it existsIt is the characteristic equation of the Euler equation that the real equation resembles near 0. It tells you which power of x the solution begins with.
Definition A
Frobenius series
A Frobenius series is a function of the form y=xs∑n=0∞anxn with a0=0. For s=0,1,2,… it is an ordinary power series.
In one lineA function xs∑n≥0anxn with a0=0, defined for x>0 (use ∣x∣s for x<0). The exponent s need not be a whole number.
Why it existsThe factor xs carries the singular behaviour at 0, and the power series carries the rest.
Theorem AApostol 6.22 and 6.23 (the computation is done there for Bessel's equation)
The Frobenius recurrence
Let P=∑pnxn and Q=∑qnxn near 0. A Frobenius series y=xs∑anxn with a0=1 solves x2y′′+xPy′+Qy=0 on an interval (0,r) if and only if F(s)=0 and for all n≥1
F(s+n)an=−k=0∑n−1[(s+k)pn−k+qn−k]ak.(F)
In one lineThe Frobenius series xs∑anxn with a0=1 solves x2y′′+xPy′+Qy=0 exactly when F(s)=0 and, for every n≥1, F(s+n)an=−∑k=0n−1[(s+k)pn−k+qn−k]ak.
Why it is trueEach power xs+k is sent to a multiple of itself by the part x2y′′+p0xy′+q0y, namely F(s+k)xs+k, and the remaining terms of P and Q push contributions to higher powers. So the coefficients can be solved one at a time.
ProofApostol 6.23
The idea: Apply the operator to one term x^(s+k), expand P and Q as series, collect the coefficient of x^(s+n), and set each to zero.
For one term, x2(xs+k)′′+xP(xs+k)′+Qxs+k=xs+k[(s+k)(s+k−1)+(s+k)∑jpjxj+∑jqjxj].
For a power xm: x2(xm)′′=m(m−1)xm and x(xm)′=mxm. With P=∑pjxj and Q=∑qjxj this gives the expression on the right.
The coefficient of xs+n in the result is an[(s+n)(s+n−1)+(s+n)p0+q0]+∑k<n[(s+k)pn−k+qn−k]ak.
Sum over k with coefficients ak, and collect the power xs+n: it comes from k=n with j=0 and from k<n with j=n−k. Term-by-term differentiation is allowed inside the radius of convergence.
So F(s+n)an+∑k<n[⋯]ak=0 for every n≥0.
The bracket in front of an is F(s+n) by the definition of F. Matching coefficients: each must be 0. For n=0 there is no sum and a0=0, so F(s)=0. For n≥1 solve for F(s+n)an. ■
(F) can be solved for an whenever F(s+n)=0. Now see what that means for each root. Write F(s)=(s−α1)(s−α2) with α1≥α2. Then
The larger root α1 always works: (F) can be solved for every n. The smaller root α2 fails at n=N exactly when α1−α2=N is a positive whole number. That is the origin of the three cases.
Theorem AApostol 6.22 (Theorems 6.14 and 6.15); Frobenius 1873
The Frobenius theorem
Let 0 be a regular singular point, with P,Q analytic on (−r,r), and let α1≥α2 be the indicial roots (if they are complex, see below). For 0<x<r:
α1−α2 not a whole number. There are two independent solutions u1=xα1∑anxn and u2=xα2∑bnxn, with a0=b0=1.
α1=α2. There is u1=xα1∑anxn and a second solution u2=u1lnx+xα1∑bnxn.
α1−α2=N, a positive whole number. There is u1=xα1∑anxn and a second solution u2=Cu1lnx+xα2∑bnxn with b0=1, where the constant C may or may not be 0.
The series converge for ∣x∣<r. (Complex roots α±iβ differ by 2iβ, which is not a whole number, so case 1 applies; real solutions are the real and imaginary parts of xα+iβ∑anxn.)
In one lineAt a regular singular point with indicial roots α1≥α2, the larger root always gives a Frobenius series solution u1. If α1−α2 is not a whole number, the smaller root gives a second one. If the roots are equal, or differ by a whole number, a second solution contains u1lnx.
Why it is trueThe recurrence (F) can be solved for the smaller root unless F(α2+N)=0 for some N≥1. When it fails, the second solution needs a logarithm, as the reduction-of-order computation below shows.
The theorem is stated without a full proof here, as in Apostol, who refers to Coddington and Hille for the convergence argument (a majorant argument like the proof of the ordinary-point theorem). The recurrence (F) shows how u1 is built and why the three cases arise. What (F) does not show is that the series converge on the whole interval, which the references prove, and why the second solution carries a logarithm, which is explained now. For Bessel’s equation the convergence is checked directly below.
Why· Why a logarithm appears exactly when the roots differ by a whole number
Use Abel’s formula of 7.3. Any two solutions of y′′+py′+qy=0 have Wronskian W=ce−∫p. Here p=xp0+(series), so W=cx−p0(1+e1x+⋯). If u1=xα1(1+⋯) is known, reduction of order gives a second solution u2=u1∫u12Wdx. Insert W and u1, and use −p0=α1+α2−1:
u12W=cxα2−α1−1(1+d1x+d2x2+⋯).
Integrate term by term. The term djxα2−α1−1+j integrates to a power xα2−α1+j/(α2−α1+j), unless the exponent α2−α1−1+j equals −1, in which case the integral is djlnx. That happens for some j≥0 exactly when α1−α2=j is a whole number. If the roots are equal, j=0 and d0=1=0, so the logarithm is unavoidable. If they differ by N>0, the logarithm has the coefficient dN, which may happen to be 0. That is the constant C of the theorem. The powers that remain, times u1, form xα2∑bnxn.
Worked example Apostol 6.22; new
Find and classify the singular points at x = 0 of: x²y'' + 3xy' + y = 0; x²y'' + xy' + (x² − 4)y = 0; x²y'' + y' + y = 0; and at x = 1 of Legendre's equation.
Solution.
Equation
P, Q (standard form)
p0, q0
Indicial polynomial F(s)
Type
x2y′′+3xy′+y=0
P=3, Q=1
3, 1
s2+2s+1=(s+1)2
regular, equal roots −1,−1
x2y′′+xy′+(x2−4)y=0
P=1, Q=x2−4
1, −4
s2−4
regular, roots 2,−2 (differ by 4)
x2y′′+y′+y=0
xP=1 gives P=x1
none
none
irregular
Legendre at x=1
P=1+x2x, Q=−1+x(x−1)ν(ν+1)
1, 0
s(s−1)+s=s2
regular, equal roots 0,0
Put the equation in standard form. Divide so that y′′ has coefficient x2, then read off xP as the coefficient of y′ and Q as the coefficient of y. The indicial equation is stated for x2y′′+xPy′+Qy=0. A common mistake is to read p0 off the original coefficient of y′.
Test analyticity. In the third row the coefficient of y′ is 1=xP, so P=x1, which is not analytic at 0: irregular. An irregular singular point has no indicial equation, and power series methods may fail (see the traps).
Legendre at x=1. Use the variable x−1. With p=1−x2−2x we get (x−1)p=1+x2x, and with q=1−x2ν(ν+1) we get (x−1)2q=−1+x(x−1)ν(ν+1). At x=1: p0=1, q0=0. Both are analytic at 1 (the denominator 1+x is 2 there), so 1 is a regular singular point.
Read the consequence. Equal indicial roots mean case 2: Legendre’s equation has one solution analytic at x=1 (the series in powers of x−1) and a second with ln(x−1). That second solution is the one that is unbounded at the pole. This matches the box on non-integer ν.
Answer. As in the table.
Quick checkWhat is the indicial equation of the Euler equation x2y′′+2xy′−6y=0?
Here p0=2 and q0=−6, so F(s)=s(s−1)+2s−6=s2+s−6=(s+3)(s−2). The roots are 2 and −3, and the solutions are x2 and x−3. The second option forgets the −s from the second derivative.
Worked example Apostol 6.22 style; new numbers
Case 1: solve 2xy'' + y' − y = 0 for x > 0 by the Frobenius method.
Solution.
Standard form. Multiply by 2x: x2y′′+2xy′−2xy=0. So P=21 and Q=−2x, giving p0=21, q0=0, q1=−21, and all other pn,qn equal 0. Read P and Q off the standard form.
Indicial equation.F(s)=s(s−1)+2s=s(s−21), with roots α1=21 and α2=0. They differ by 21, not a whole number: case 1, two Frobenius series.
Recurrence. Only q1 is non-zero, so (F) reads F(s+n)an=−q1an−1=21an−1. The sum in (F) has only the term k=n−1, with qn−k=q1.
Root s=0.F(n)=n(n−21), so an=n(2n−1)an−1: a1=1, a2=61, a3=901. n(n−21)an=21an−1; multiply by 2.
Root s=21.F(21+n)=(n+21)n, so an=n(2n+1)an−1: a1=31, a2=301. Same computation with the other exponent.
Recognise the sums.u2=1+x+6x2+90x3+⋯=cosh2x and x1/2(1+3x+30x2+⋯)=2sinh2x. Expand cosht=∑(2n)!t2n and sinht=∑(2n+1)!t2n+1 with t=2x: the coefficients of xn are (2n)!2n and (2n+1)!2n, the values above.
Check one by hand. For y=cosh2x: y′=2xsinh2x and y′′=2xcosh2x−(2x)3/2sinh2x. Then 2xy′′+y′−y=cosh2x−2xsinh2x+2xsinh2x−cosh2x=0. Substitution is the final check.
Answer.y=Acosh2x+Bsinh2x for x>0.
Your answerThe Frobenius series for 2xy′′+y′−y=0 at the root s=0 has an=n(2n−1)an−1 with a0=1. What is a3? (A fraction.)
Apply the recurrence three times.
a1=1⋅11=1, a2=2⋅31=61, a3=3⋅51/6=901. These are the coefficients of cosh2x: 6!23=7208=901.
Bessel’s equation
Definition A
Bessel function
For a whole number n≥0 the Bessel function of the first kind and order n is the series above. The case n=0 is
(For orders that are not whole numbers, (k+n)! is replaced by the gamma function; see the box below.)
In one lineJn(x)=∑k≥0k!(k+n)!(−1)k(2x)2k+n, the solution of Bessel's equation x2y′′+xy′+(x2−n2)y=0 that is finite at x=0 (for n=0,1,2,…).
Why it existsBessel's equation is what the wave equation becomes in polar coordinates, so Jn describes the shape of a vibrating drumhead and of waves in a cylinder.
Theorem AApostol 6.23
J0 solves Bessel's equation of order zero
For x2y′′+xy′+x2y=0: the point 0 is regular singular with F(s)=s2. The Frobenius series for s=0 is J0(x), which converges for all x, satisfies J0(0)=1, and is an even function. Every solution that is not a multiple of J0 is unbounded as x→0+.
In one lineThe series J0 converges for every real x and solves x2y′′+xy′+x2y=0. The indicial equation is s2=0 (a double root), so a second solution contains lnx.
Why it is trueBessel's equation has a regular singular point at 0 with p0=1 and q0=0 (order zero). The recurrence n2an=−an−2 links every second coefficient, and the factorials make the series converge everywhere.
ProofApostol 6.23
The idea: Read P and Q off the equation, apply the Frobenius recurrence, solve it, and apply the ratio test. For the unboundedness use Abel's formula.
F(s)=s(s−1)+s=s2. Double root s=0.
Standard form: the equation already has the form x2y′′+xPy′+Qy=0 with P=1 and Q=x2. So p0=1, q2=1, and all other pn,qn are 0.
F(1)a1=0, so a1=0; and n2an=−an−2 for n≥2.
(F) with s=0. For n=1 the sum has only k=0 and the coefficients p1,q1 are 0. For n≥2 the only non-zero term in the sum is k=n−2, with q2=1.
With a0=1: y=∑k≥04k(k!)2(−1)kx2k=J0(x).
Odd coefficients all vanish because a1=0. For even indices, a2k=−(2k)2a2k−2=−4k2a2k−2, so by induction a2k=4k(k!)2(−1)k.
The series converges for all x.
Ratio test: a2kx2ka2k+2x2k+2=4(k+1)2x2→0 for every fixed x, so the radius of convergence is infinite.
So u=J0∫xJ02cdx=cJ0lnx+(bounded) near 0, and ∣u∣→∞ unless c=0. ■
Abel's formula (7.3): in standard form y′′+x1y′+y=0 has p=x1, so any Wronskian is xc. For a second solution u this gives (u/J0)′=J02W=xJ02c near 0, where J0=0. As J0(x)→1, the right side is about xc.
The unbounded second solution is a combination of J0lnx and a power series. Its name is Y0 (the Bessel function of the second kind), which differs from the one computed below by a constant multiple and a multiple of J0.
Worked example Apostol 6.23; check against tables
Evaluate J0(2) from the series and find the zero of J0 near 2.4; then find the second solution of Bessel's equation of order 0 in two ways.
Solution.
Write the terms at x=2.(2x)2k=1, so J0(2)=∑k(k!)2(−1)k=1−1+41−361+5761−144001+⋯. The factor 2x is 1.
Add. The partial sums are 1,0,0.25,0.22222,0.22396,0.22389, converging to J0(2)=0.22389. This is an alternating series, so the error is less than the first omitted term (5184001 after the last one shown).
Locate the zero. At x=2.4 the terms (k!)2(1.2)2k are 1,1.44,0.5184,0.0829,0.0075,0.0004, with alternating signs, and J0(2.4)=0.0025>0. The slope is J0′(2.4)=−J1(2.4)=−0.52, so the graph reaches zero about 0.520.0025≈0.005 further on, at x≈2.405. One step of Newton’s method on the series. The exact zero is 2.4048.
Second solution, method 1: the logarithm ansatz. By case 2, u=J0lnx+v with v=∑n≥2bnxn. Let L[y]=x2y′′+xy′+x2y. Then L[J0lnx]=lnx⋅L[J0]+2xJ0′=2xJ0′, so L[v]=−2xJ0′=x2−8x4+192x6−⋯. Differentiating J0lnx twice gives J0′′lnx+x2J0′−x2J0; the terms with lnx vanish because L[J0]=0, and −J0+J0 cancel.
Match coefficients.L[xn]=n2xn+xn+2, so the coefficient of x2: 4b2=1; of x4: 16b4+b2=−81; of x6: 36b6+b4=1921. This gives b2=41, b4=−1283, b6=1382411. The solution is unique up to adding multiples of J0; choosing no x0 term fixes it.
Method 2: Abel and reduction of order.u=J0∫xJ02dx. Since J02=1−2x2+323x4−⋯, we get J021=1+2x2+325x4+⋯, so ∫xJ02dx=lnx+4x2+1285x4+⋯. Multiply by J0=1−4x2+⋯: u=J0lnx+4x2+(1285−161)x4+⋯=J0lnx+4x2−1283x4+⋯. Both methods give the same series, which is the check.
Answer.J0(2)=0.2239; the first zero of J0 is 2.4048; the second solution is J0(x)lnx+4x2−1283x4+1382411x6−⋯.
Your answerSum the series for J0(2) until the terms are below 10−5. What is J0(2) to four decimals?
Add 1−1+0.25−0.02778+0.001736−0.0000694.
The terms are (k!)2(−1)k at x=2: 1,−1,41,−361,5761,−144001. The partial sum is 0.22389.
Worked example Apostol 6.22 (Theorem 6.15); new numbers
Case 3: solve x y'' + y = 0 near x = 0 (the roots differ by 1 and a logarithm is needed), and show that Bessel's equation of order 1/2 has no logarithm.
Solution.
Standard form. Multiply by x: x2y′′+xy=0, so P=0 and Q=x (q1=1). The indicial polynomial is F(s)=s(s−1), with roots α1=1, α2=0, differing by N=1. A whole-number difference is case 3.
Larger root. (F) gives F(1+n)an=−an−1 with F(1+n)=n(n+1), so an=−n(n+1)an−1 and u1=x−2x2+12x3−144x4+⋯. The larger root always works.
Smaller root fails. For s=0 and n=1, (F) says F(1)a1=−q1a0, that is 0⋅a1=−1. This is impossible. F(α2+N)=0 at N=1, and the right side is not 0.
Allow a logarithm. Try u2=Cu1lnx+v with v=1+b1x+b2x2+⋯. Since xu1′′+u1=0, we get xu2′′+u2=C(2u1′−xu1)+xv′′+v. Differentiating u1lnx twice gives u1′′lnx+x2u1′−x2u1; multiply by x.
Match the constant term.2u1′−xu1=1−23x+⋯, and xv′′+v=1+(b1+2b2)x+⋯. The constant term gives C+1=0, so C=−1. The logarithm is forced: C=0.
Match the next term. The x coefficient: 23+b1+2b2=0. With b1=0 (a free choice, adding a multiple of u1), b2=−43. The next terms give b3=367.
Compare with Bessel of order 21. Here F(s)=s2−41, roots ±21, difference 1. For s=−21 and n=1: (F) says F(21)a1=−(…)a0=0, and F(21)=0 too. So 0⋅a1=0 holds for any a1: nothing goes wrong and C=0. The right side happens to vanish because P and Q have no x1 terms. The two free numbers a0,a1 give x−1/2cosx and x−1/2sinx.
Answer.u1=x−2x2+12x3−⋯ and u2=1−u1lnx−43x2+367x3−⋯ for xy′′+y=0. For Bessel’s equation of order 21 the solutions are xsinx and xcosx, with no logarithm.
Quick checkThe equation x2y′′+xy′+(x2−41)y=0 has indicial roots ±21, which differ by the whole number 1. What does the Frobenius theorem predict?
The theorem says the constant C in front of u1lnx MAY be 0 when the roots differ by a positive whole number. Here the recurrence at n=1 reads 0⋅a1=0, so a1 is free and both solutions are Frobenius series. For xy′′+y=0 the same step reads 0⋅a1=−1 and the logarithm is forced.
Beyond the course: for understanding· B: other orders, the gamma function, and what J0 looks like for large x
For an order ν that is not a whole number, (k+ν)! is replaced by Γ(k+ν+1), where the gamma functionΓ(s)=∫0∞ts−1e−tdt satisfies Γ(s+1)=sΓ(s) and Γ(n+1)=n!. Then Jν(x)=∑kk!Γ(k+ν+1)(−1)k(2x)2k+ν, and J±ν are independent when 2ν is not a whole number. Half-integer orders are elementary: J1/2(x)=πx2sinx. For large x one has J0(x)≈πx2cos(x−4π): an oscillation with a slowly decaying amplitude. At x=10 the exact value is −0.2459 and the formula gives −0.2468. The zeros 2.405,5.520,8.654,11.792 are almost equally spaced by π, but not quite; that explains the sound of a drum (see below).
Beyond the course: for understanding· B: the Airy functions Ai and Bi
The series u1,u2 of the Airy equation y′′=xy both grow as x→+∞. One special combination does not: Ai(x)=Ai(0)u1+Ai′(0)u2 with Ai(0)=0.35503 and Ai′(0)=−0.25882. It decays like 2πx1/4e−32x3/2 for large positive x. For large negative x it oscillates, like π∣x∣1/4sin(32∣x∣3/2+4π), with zeros at −2.338,−4.088,−5.521,…. A second solution Bi grows. The Airy function is the model of a turning point: on one side of x=0 the equation has oscillating solutions and on the other exponentials.
Python labThe Airy series against a numerical solution
import numpy as np# Power series for y'' = x*y with y(0) = 1, y'(0) = 0, from the recurrence a[n+3] = a[n] / ((n+3)(n+2))def coefficients(N): a = np.zeros(N + 1) a[0] = 1.0 for n in range(N - 2): a[n + 3] = a[n] / ((n + 3) * (n + 2)) return adef partial_sum(a, x): return sum(c * x**k for k, c in enumerate(a))# The same equation solved numerically (RK4), with no series anywheredef rk4(x_end, h=5e-4): n = int(round(abs(x_end) / h)); h = x_end / n x, y, v = 0.0, 1.0, 0.0 for _ in range(n): k1y, k1v = v, x * y k2y, k2v = v + h/2 * k1v, (x + h/2) * (y + h/2 * k1y) k3y, k3v = v + h/2 * k2v, (x + h/2) * (y + h/2 * k2y) k4y, k4v = v + h * k3v, (x + h) * (y + h * k3y) y += h/6 * (k1y + 2*k2y + 2*k3y + k4y) v += h/6 * (k1v + 2*k2v + 2*k3v + k4v) x += h return ya = coefficients(120)print(" x RK4 value rel. error of the series with degree 10, 30, 60, 120")for x in [1.0, 5.0, -5.0, 12.0, -12.0]: ref = rk4(x) errs = [abs(partial_sum(a[:N + 1], x) - ref) / abs(ref) for N in (10, 30, 60, 120)] print(f"{x:6.1f} {ref:14.6g} " + " ".join(f"{e:9.2e}" for e in errs))
Try this.Run it. At x=1 ten terms give 7 digits (5×10−7) and 30 terms reach the floor set by the numerical solution itself (4×10−15). At x=5 ten terms are 52% off and 60 terms are exact to 14 digits. The farther out you go, the more terms you need: at x=12 even 60 terms are 0.8% off, and 120 terms are good to 10−12. Now look at x=−12, where the solution oscillates and has size 0.33. Even with 120 terms the error is 6×10−5, because the individual terms anxn reach about 4×1010 and cancel down to 0.33, and double precision holds only 16 digits. Add -13.0 to the list of x values to see the loss get worse. A convergent series is not automatically a good algorithm; for the Airy function the library routines switch to other formulas for large ∣x∣.
Where it is used
Used inside maths· Inside maths: Gauss–Legendre quadrature, with orthogonality doing the work
Chapter 15.1 built quadrature rules from interpolation: with n nodes, the rule is exact for polynomials of degree below n. Put the nodes at the roots of Pn and the rule becomes exact up to degree 2n−1, twice as good. The reason is the corollary above.
Claim. Let x1,…,xn be the roots of Pn (all in (−1,1), problem P2 below) and let wi=∫−11ℓi(x)dx, where ℓi is the Lagrange basis polynomial of the nodes (15.1). Then ∑iwif(xi)=∫−11fdx for every polynomial f of degree at most 2n−1.
Proof. Divide: f=qPn+r with degq≤n−1 and degr≤n−1. Then ∫f=∫qPn+∫r=0+∫r by orthogonality. At each node Pn(xi)=0, so f(xi)=r(xi) and ∑wif(xi)=∑wir(xi)=∫r, because the rule is exact for polynomials of degree below n. So both sides equal ∫r. ■
For n=2 the roots of P2=23x2−1 are ±31 with weights 1,1. For ∫−11exdx=2.3504: two Gauss–Legendre nodes give e1/3+e−1/3=2.3427 (error 0.008). Simpson’s rule with three nodes gives 3e−1+4+e=2.3621 (error 0.012). Three Gauss–Legendre nodes (0,±0.6, weights 98,95,95) give 2.35034 (error 0.00007).
Your answerThe two-point Gauss–Legendre rule on [−1,1] has nodes ±31 and weights 1,1. What does it give for ∫−11exdx? (The true value is 2.3504.)
Evaluate ex at x=±0.57735 and add (the weights are both 1).
e0.57735=1.7814 and e−0.57735=0.5614, and the sum is 2.3427. The error is 0.008, smaller than Simpson's rule with three nodes (error 0.012).
Used inside maths· Inside maths: other orthogonal polynomials solve similar equations
The Chebyshev polynomials of 15.1 solve (1−x2)y′′−xy′+n2y=0 (check with T2=2x2−1: 4(1−x2)−4x2+4(2x2−1)=0), and they are orthogonal for the inner product ∫−11fg1−x2dx. The Hermite polynomials solve y′′−2xy′+2αy=0 (problem U1), orthogonal with weight e−x2 on the whole line, and they describe the quantum harmonic oscillator. Each family comes from a second-order equation of the form (p(x)y′)′+λw(x)y=0, whose operator is symmetric, so the proof of orthogonality above works for all of them. This is the Sturm–Liouville theory that MATH 521 and PDE courses develop.
Used in the real world· Quantum mechanics and optics: the Airy function in tunnelling, in a bouncing neutron and in the rainbow
A particle in a constant force. With potential V=Fx the Schrödinger equation −2mℏ2ψ′′+Fxψ=Eψ rearranges to ψ′′=ℏ22mF(x−FE)ψ. Put ℓ=(2mFℏ2)1/3 and z=ℓx−E/F: then dz2d2ψ=zψ, which is Airy’s equation. The solution that stays finite on the forbidden side (z>0) is Ai(z). For an electron in a field of 109 V/m (a force of 1 eV per nanometre, a field of the size found at a sharp metal tip) ℓ=0.336 nm. The probability density ∣ψ∣2∝Ai(z)2 is 14.5% of its value at the turning point one length ℓ (0.34 nm) beyond it, and 0.97% two lengths (0.67 nm) beyond: the electron is found where classically it has negative kinetic energy. This is tunnelling in its simplest form.
A neutron bouncing on a mirror. A neutron above a horizontal mirror has V=mgz and ψ(0)=0. The same substitution gives ψ∝Ai(z0z−E/mg) with z0=(2m2gℏ2)1/3=5.87μm, and ψ(0)=0 requires Ai(−E/(mgz0))=0. So the allowed energies are En=mgz0∣an∣, where an is the n-th zero of Ai counted from 0 downwards. With ∣an∣=2.338,4.088,5.521 this gives E1=1.41 peV, E2=2.46 peV, E3=3.32 peV (1 peV =10−12 eV), the neutron’s classical heights being 13.7,24.0,32.4μm. Nesvizhevsky and his colleagues reported neutrons in such quantum states, with a ground state of about 1.4 peV, in Nature in 2002.
The rainbow. Geometric optics says the brightness at the edge of a rainbow is infinite and beyond it is zero. Airy’s paper of 1838 replaced this by a wave calculation in which the intensity near the edge is proportional to Ai(−z)2, with z the angular distance from the geometric edge in a natural unit. That unit scales like (λ/r)2/3 for light of wavelength λ and drops of radius r. On the dark side the intensity decays like e−34z3/2 (a faint leakage), so it is finite everywhere. On the bright side it oscillates, with maxima where Ai′=0, at z=1.019,3.248,4.820,… The first is the bright primary bow, set back from the geometric edge by 1.019 units, and the later ones are the faint supernumerary bows, which wave optics predicts and geometric optics cannot. Because the unit grows when the drops are smaller, the extra bands are widest and most visible in fine, uniform drops: reducing the drop radius by a factor 10 widens the pattern by 102/3≈4.6.
Used in the real world· Acoustics: why a drum has no clear pitch (Bessel functions)
A circular membrane of radius a and wave speed c vibrates as u(r,θ,t)=R(r)cos(mθ)cos(ωt). Substituting into the wave equation in polar coordinates gives Bessel’s equation for R in the variable ωr/c, with order m. A membrane fixed at the rim needs R(a)=0, so Jm(ωa/c)=0, and the frequencies are f=2πacjm,k, where jm,k is the k-th positive zero of Jm. Take a=0.30 m and c=100 m/s (illustrative values for a stretched drumhead), so 2πac=53.05 Hz. Then the modes with no angular variation (m=0) are at 2.405×53.05=127.6 Hz, 292.8 Hz, 459.1 Hz, 625.6 Hz, with ratios 1:2.295:3.598:4.903. The mode m=1 appears at 3.832×53.05=203.3 Hz and the mode m=2 at 5.136×53.05=272.5 Hz. A string would give ratios 1:2:3:4, which the ear hears as one pitch. The drum’s overtones are not whole-number multiples of the lowest frequency, so an ideal drumhead has no definite pitch, only a thump. (Real timpani are shaped and loaded with air so that some overtones line up.)
Used in the real world· Satellites: the Legendre polynomial P2 and the sun-synchronous orbit
Outside the Earth the gravitational potential is Φ=−rGM[1−∑n≥2Jn(rR)nPn(sinφ)], where φ is latitude and R the equatorial radius. This is an expansion in Legendre polynomials, justified by the orthogonality above. The dominant correction comes from n=2, with J2=1.08263×10−3 (the Earth’s equatorial bulge), and the angular pattern is P2(sinφ)=23sin2φ−1. The bulge makes the plane of a circular orbit of radius a and inclination i turn about the Earth’s axis at the rate Ω˙=−23J2n(aR)2cosi, where n=GM/a3 is the orbital angular speed. For an orbit at height 800 km (a=7178 km, n=1.038×10−3 rad/s, period 100.9 min), choosing i=98.6∘ (so cosi=−0.1496) gives Ω˙=+0.985∘ per day, which is 360∘ per year (the Sun’s mean motion is 0.9856∘ per day, and a change of about 0.003∘ in i closes the small gap). The plane follows the Sun around once a year, so the satellite passes over a given latitude at the same local solar time each day. Earth-observation satellites use these sun-synchronous orbits.
Traps
Watch out· Index shifts: the sums must start where the terms start
In y′′=∑n≥2n(n−1)anxn−2 the shift n→n+2 makes the sum start at 0. In xy=∑n≥0anxn+1 the shift n→n−1 makes it start at 1, so the coefficient of x0 gets nothing from xy (this is why a2=0 for the Airy equation). After a shift, write the first few terms out in full and check that the lowest power is the same on both sides. An equation for the coefficient of x0 must be written separately when the sums start at different places.
Watch out· Two constants are free, so do not set one to zero by habit
At an ordinary point a0=y(x0) and a1=y′(x0) are both free. The general solution is a0u1+a1u2. Worksheet 26 #5 gives both starting values, which is why a single series came out. When they are not given, keep both letters, or give both solutions. The even and the odd chains of Legendre and Airy never mix, which is why the two solutions split cleanly.
Watch out· A real equation with no real trouble can still have a small radius
(1+x2)y′′+2xy′=0 has coefficients with no singularity on the real line, but the series of its solution arctanx about 0 has radius 1. The reason is the complex points ±i. So “the equation is smooth at x=1” does not prove that the series converges at x=1. Use the theorem as stated: find the radius of convergence of p and q as power series about the centre. That radius is the guarantee for the solution.
Watch out· Legendre: the sign of n − ν, and which chain stops
The recurrence has (n−ν)(n+ν+1), with a minus sign in the first factor. The factor (n−ν) vanishes at n=ν and only in the chain of that parity: for ν=2 the even chain stops after a2, while the odd chain (a1,a3,…) never stops. And Pn is normalised by Pn(1)=1. If you write P2=x2−31 (the monic version from Gram–Schmidt), the equation still holds but the value at 1 is 32, not 1.
Watch out· Frobenius: standard form first, then the indicial equation
The indicial equation needs the equation in the form x2y′′+xPy′+Qy=0. For 2xy′′+y′−y=0 the coefficient of y′ is 1, but p0 is 21, because you must divide by 2 and multiply by x to reach x2y′′+x⋅21y′−2xy=0. Reading the roots off the original coefficients gives wrong exponents. Also: take the LARGER root first; it never fails. If the roots differ by a whole number do not conclude “no second solution”: try a logarithm.
Watch out· At an irregular singular point the formal series can have radius zero
x2y′′−y′−y=0 is irregular at 0 (the coefficient of y′ is −1, so P=−x1 is not analytic). Substituting ∑anxn gives an+1=n+1n2−n−1an, and the ratio anan+1 grows like n, so the series converges only at x=0 (Apostol 6.22). No arithmetic error caused this: the method does not apply at irregular points.
Watch out· x > 0 or x < 0
Frobenius solutions contain xs with s possibly not a whole number, such as x1/2 or x−1/2. They are defined for x>0 (or use ∣x∣s for x<0). Write the interval with your answer. lnx in the second solution is likewise ln∣x∣ on the left.
Problems
checkApostol 6.22; new
Classify the point x=0 (ordinary, regular singular, irregular) for each equation, and give the indicial equation when it is regular singular. (a) y′′+3y′+2y=0. (b) x2y′′+xy′+(x2−4)y=0. (c) x3y′′+y=0. (d) x2y′′+4xy′+2y=0.
Solution
(a) Ordinary: p=3 and q=2 are constants, analytic. (b) Regular singular, since P=1 and Q=x2−4 are analytic. F(s)=s(s−1)+s−4=s2−4, roots ±2. (c) Dividing by x3, p=0 and q=x−3. Then x2q=x−1, which is not analytic at 0: irregular. (d) Regular singular with P=4, Q=2, so F(s)=s(s−1)+4s+2=s2+3s+2=(s+1)(s+2), roots −1 and −2. It is an Euler equation, with solutions x−1 and x−2 and no logarithm.
checkMATH 376 worksheet 26 #6 style
Find the recurrence for the power series solutions of y′′+xy=0 and write the first three non-zero terms of the solution with y(0)=1, y′(0)=0.
Solution
With y=∑anxn: ∑(n+2)(n+1)an+2xn+∑n≥1an−1xn=0. The constant term gives a2=0, and for n≥1, (n+2)(n+1)an+2=−an−1, that is an+3=−(n+3)(n+2)an. With a0=1 and a1=0: a3=−61, a6=1801. So y=1−6x3+180x6−⋯. The sign alternation compared with the Airy equation turns growth into oscillation for x>0.
checkApostol 6.22; new
Find the indicial roots at x=0 of (a) x2y′′+xy′+(x−91)y=0 and (b) 2x2y′′+xy′−y=0, and say which case of the Frobenius theorem applies.
Solution
(a) P=1, Q=x−91, so p0=1, q0=−91 and F(s)=s2−91, roots ±31. The difference 32 is not a whole number: case 1, two Frobenius series. (b) Divide by 2: x2y′′+x⋅21y′−21y=0, so p0=21, q0=−21 and F(s)=s2−2s−21=(s−1)(s+21). The roots are 1 and −21; the difference 23 is not a whole number: case 1 (and in fact an Euler equation with solutions x and x−1/2).
checkApostol 6.19; new
Find Pn(1), Pn(−1), P2(0) and P4(0) using the facts of this chapter.
Solution
Pn(1)=1 for all n. By the parity result of problem P1, Pn(−1)=(−1)nPn(1)=(−1)n. From P2=23x2−1: P2(0)=−21. From P4=835x4−30x2+3: P4(0)=83.
useApostol 6.21 #4
Find the recurrence for power series solutions of the Hermite equation y′′−2xy′+2αy=0. For which α is there a polynomial solution? Find it for α=3, and say where the series solutions converge.
Solution
With y=∑anxn: (n+2)(n+1)an+2−2nan+2αan=0, so an+2=(n+1)(n+2)2(n−α)an. If α=m is a non-negative integer the chain of the same parity stops after am, giving a polynomial of degree m. For α=3 take a1=1 (a0=0): a3=2⋅32(1−3)=−32, and a5=4⋅52(3−3)a3=0. So y=x−32x3; multiplied by −6 this is 4x3−6x, a multiple of the Hermite polynomial H3=8x3−12x. The coefficients p=−2x and q=2α are polynomials, analytic on every interval, so the series converge for all x.
useApostol 6.22 style; new
Solve 4xy′′+2y′+y=0 for x>0 by the Frobenius method, and recognise the solutions.
Solution
Multiply by 4x: x2y′′+x⋅21y′+4xy=0. So p0=21, q0=0, q1=41 and F(s)=s(s−21), roots 0 and 21 (case 1). The recurrence (F) reads F(s+n)an=−41an−1. For s=0: n(n−21)an=−41an−1, so an=−2n(2n−1)an−1 and an=(2n)!(−1)n: u1=∑(2n)!(−1)nxn=cosx. For s=21: (n+21)nan=−41an−1, so an=−2n(2n+1)an−1 and an=(2n+1)!(−1)n: u2=x1/2∑(2n+1)!(−1)nxn=sinx. General solution y=Acosx+Bsinx. Check: for y=cosx, 4xy′′+2y′+y=(−cosx+xsinx)−xsinx+cosx=0.
useApostol 6.20; new
Expand f(x)=x4 in Legendre polynomials.
Solution
Only even k≤4 contribute. c0=21∫x4=21⋅52=51. c2=25∫x4⋅23x2−1=45(76−52)=45⋅3516=74. c4=29∫x4⋅835x4−30x2+3=169(970−760+56)=169⋅315128=358. So x4=51P0+74P2+358P4. Check at x=1: 51+74+358=357+20+8=1.
useApostol 6.23; new
Use the first four terms of the series for J0(1) and bound the error.
Solution
J0(1)=1−41+641−23041+⋯=1−0.25+0.015625−0.000434=0.765191. The series alternates with terms decreasing in size, so the error is less than the first omitted term, 44(4!)21=1474561=6.8×10−6. The true value is 0.765198, within that bound.
proveApostol 6.20; new
Prove that Pn(−x)=(−1)nPn(x) for every n.
Solution
Plan. Rodrigues’ formula applies n derivatives to an even function.
The function w(x)=(x2−1)n is even: w(−x)=w(x). If g is even then g′ is odd (differentiate g(−x)=g(x): −g′(−x)=g′(x)), and if g is odd then g′ is even. So each derivative reverses the parity, and w(n) has parity (−1)n: w(n)(−x)=(−1)nw(n)(x). Dividing by 2nn! gives the claim. ■
proveApostol 6.20 (last paragraph)
Prove that Pn has n distinct real roots, all in the interval (−1,1).
Solution
Plan. If Pn changed sign in (−1,1) fewer than n times, multiply it by a polynomial that changes sign at the same places. The product has constant sign, so its integral is not 0; but orthogonality says it is 0.
Let x1,…,xm be the points in (−1,1) where Pn changes sign (roots of odd multiplicity), m≥0. Suppose m<n. Put q(x)=(x−x1)⋯(x−xm), with q=1 if m=0. Then Pnq does not change sign on (−1,1): each sign change of Pn at xi is cancelled by the sign change of the factor x−xi, and no other sign changes exist. It is not identically zero, so ∫−11Pnqdx=0. But degq=m<n, so ∫Pnq=0 by the corollary on Legendre polynomials, a contradiction. Hence m≥n. A polynomial of degree n has at most n roots, so m=n, and the n sign-change points are all of its roots, each simple. ■
proveApostol 6.23; new
Let J1(x)=∑k≥0k!(k+1)!(−1)k(2x)2k+1. Prove that J0′(x)=−J1(x).
Solution
Plan. Differentiate the series term by term and shift the index.
Power series can be differentiated term by term inside the radius of convergence, here infinite. dxd(2x)2k=k(2x)2k−1, so J0′(x)=∑k≥1(k!)2(−1)kk(2x)2k−1 (the term k=0 is constant). Since (k!)2k=k!(k−1)!1, put j=k−1: J0′(x)=∑j≥0(j+1)!j!(−1)j+1(2x)2j+1=−J1(x). ■
proveuses the corollary on Legendre polynomials
Prove that the two-point rule ∫−11fdx≈f(−31)+f(31) is exact for every cubic polynomial, and show it is not exact for x4.
Solution
Plan. By linearity it is enough to check 1,x,x2,x3.
The rule is linear in f, and so is the integral, so it suffices to check them on 1,x,x2,x3. For f=1: 2=1+1. For f=x: 0=−31+31. For f=x2: 32=31+31. For f=x3: 0=−331+331. All four agree, so it is exact for every cubic. For x4 the integral is 52=0.4 and the rule gives 91+91=92=0.22. ■ (The nodes are the roots of P2, and this is the case n=2 of the quadrature box.)
stretchApostol 6.18 (remark on convergence); new
Show that for ν not an integer the even series solution of Legendre’s equation diverges at x=1.
Solution
Plan. Show that the coefficients behave like k1, so the series compares with the harmonic series.
For ν not an integer, no coefficient of the even chain vanishes (the factor 2k−ν is never 0). For 2k>max(ν,−ν−1) the factor (2k−ν)(2k+ν+1) is positive, so from some index on all a2k have the same sign. The ratio is
rk=a2ka2k+2=4k2+6k+24k2+2k−μ,μ=ν(ν+1),
so 1−rk=4k2+6k+24k+2+μ=k1+O(k21). Then lnrk=−(1−rk)+O((1−rk)2)=−k1+O(k21), and ∑k(lnrk+k1) converges (its terms are O(k−2)). Hence ln∣a2K∣=ln∣a2k0∣+∑k=k0K−1lnrk=−lnK+O(1), that is ∣a2K∣≥Kc for some c>0 and large K. Comparison with the harmonic series shows ∑a2k diverges. Because the terms eventually have one sign, the sum ∑a2kx2k→±∞ as x→1−: the solution is unbounded. ■
stretchAbel's formula of 7.3
Let u be any solution of Bessel’s equation of order 0 that is not a multiple of J0. Show that u=J0(c∫xJ02dx+d) near 0 for constants c=0 and d, and that ∣u(x)∣→∞ as x→0+.
Solution
Plan. Use Abel’s formula for the Wronskian, then divide.
The equation in standard form is y′′+x1y′+y=0, so by Abel’s formula (7.3) W(J0,u)(x)=xc for a constant c (∫x1=lnx, so e−∫p=x1). The Wronskian of two independent solutions is not 0 anywhere, so c=0. Near 0, J0=0, and W=J0u′−J0′u=J02(J0u)′. So (J0u)′=xJ02c, and integrating gives u=J0(c∫xJ02dx+d). Since J02→1, xJ021=x1+O(x), so ∫xJ02dx=lnx+O(x2), and u=J0(clnx+d+O(x2))→±∞ as x→0+ because c=0 and J0→1. ■ (This is why only J0 describes a drumhead that is finite at its centre.)
Summary
A power series method assumes y=∑anxn, substitutes, and sets each coefficient to zero (matching coefficients is justified by f(k)(0)=k!ck). The result is a recurrence; the starting values a0,a1 are free.
At an ordinary point (p and q analytic) there are two independent power-series solutions, and they converge at least as far as p and q do. The proof bounds ∣an∣ by Kρ−n. The radius is set by the nearest singularity in the complex plane (arctan: radius 1).
Legendre’s equation(1−x2)y′′−2xy′+ν(ν+1)y=0 has the recurrence an+2=(n+1)(n+2)(n−ν)(n+ν+1)an. For ν=n a whole number the series stops: the Legendre polynomialPn=2nn!1dxndn(x2−1)n (Rodrigues), with Pn(1)=1.
The Pn are orthogonal: ∫−11PmPn=0 for m=n and 2n+12 for m=n, because they are eigenvectors of a symmetric operator. This gives expansions f=∑ckPk, Gauss–Legendre quadrature, and multipole expansions.
At a regular singular point ((x−x0)p and (x−x0)2q analytic) try the Frobenius seriesxs∑anxn. The indicial equations(s−1)+p0s+q0=0 gives s, and the recurrence (F) gives the coefficients. The larger root always works. Equal roots, or roots differing by a whole number, may force lnx in the second solution, as Abel’s formula explains.
Bessel’s equation of order 0 gives J0(x)=∑(k!)2(−1)k(x/2)2k, finite at 0 and with infinitely many zeros (2.405,5.520,…); the other solution has lnx. Airy’s equationy′′=xy has solutions that oscillate for x<0 and are exponential for x>0: the model of a turning point, for tunnelling and rainbows.
In practice: shift indices carefully, keep both free constants, standardise the equation before reading p0 and q0, and remember that a convergent series is not always a good way to compute (the lab).
Watch and read
The same ideas explained by someone else. Use these when an explanation here does not land.
MATH 376: Lecture of April 22 (Examples 8.12 and 8.14) and worksheets 26 #5, #6 and 28 #7 use the power series method on y' = ry, y' = y^2, y'' - xy' - y = 0 and y'' + y = 0. Apostol's treatment of the Legendre equation (6.18) and everything after it was not covered.
MATH 521 / complex analysis: The radius of convergence guarantee is proved there by looking at the coefficients in the complex plane. A regular singular point is a point where the coefficients have at most a simple and a double pole, and the theory of such equations is called Fuchsian.
Physics: Legendre polynomials are the angular part of gravity and electrostatics around a sphere. Bessel functions describe a drumhead and waves in a cylinder. The Airy function is the wave function of a particle in a constant force, and it describes light near the edge of a rainbow.
MATH 340 / numerical analysis: The nodes of Gauss–Legendre quadrature are the roots of the Legendre polynomials. Chapter 8.2 builds quadrature rules from interpolation; the box in this chapter shows why these nodes do twice as well.